I have some trouble understanding the benefits of Bayesian networks.
Am I correct that the key benefit of the network is that one does not need to use the chain rule of probability in order to calculate joint distributions?
So, using the chain rule:
$$ P(A_1, \dots, A_n) = \prod_{i=1}^n (A_i \mid \cap_{j=1}^{i-1} A_j) $$
leads to the same result as the following (assuming the nodes are structured by a Bayesian network)?
$$ P(A_1, \dots, A_n) = \prod_{i=1}^n P(A_i \mid \text{parents}(A_i)) $$