0

Im trying to set up a subnet address range in my local network but the private address ranges of 

172.16.1.1
192.168.1.1
10.1.10.1

are all already being used.

So I was wondering, if I make this subnet 172.17.1.1, will it be totally isolated from 172.16.1.1? and can I use both subnets without any problems? The subnet Im making now will also be a vlan.

Im just worried because I think I read somewhere that the first part of the ip address ranges cannot be the same.

thanks in advance.

Zac67
  • 81,287
  • 3
  • 67
  • 131
user59250
  • 3
  • 1
  • 2
    The octets mean nothing. You cannot tell if they overlap without knowing the mask length of each. [This two-part answer](https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/a/53994/8499) explains it all. – Ron Maupin Jul 18 '19 at 20:59

1 Answers1

3

It will depend on the subnet mask of the 172.16.1.0 network. If it is a /16 or longer, then 172.17.1 will fall outside the range and be fine to use

Benjamin Dale
  • 9,296
  • 17
  • 46
  • so their subnet masks cant be the same? – user59250 Jul 18 '19 at 20:48
  • 2
    @user59250 Their masks can be the same as long as they're /16 (255.255.0.0) or longer (like /24 255.255.255.0). If they're shorter than /16, they will overlap and will not be segregated. – Jesse P. Jul 18 '19 at 21:44